Who Changed the Name of the Messiah?

The apostles spelled “Joshua” exactly as it was recorded in the Greek Septuagint in 300 BC. The name Joshua in Greek never changed over the years. From my research on the subject, the name “Jesus” is claimed to be a transliteration of the name Yeshua. If the gospels were actually written in Greek by the apostles they would have used the actual Greek name for Joshua and not the Latinized version of “Jesus”.

grkname

This is the name of The Messiah as it appears in the original Greek Bible text

However, nowhere in scripture (Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic, or even original English) is the name GEE-ZUSS found. No people have ever called the Savior by the name Jesus except English speaking people of the last 200 years.

The Septuagint was the only bible circulating at their time. In the book of Acts we see that they used the same Greek name for Joshua that was used for the name Jesus in the gospels. In Acts 7:45 it says, When we compare that with John 1:35 in the King James Version of the bible we see the name “Jesus”.

Acts 7:45
“0ur fathers having inherited with Joshua, in the taking of possession of the nations..”

greek_joshua

The image below this paragraph is the Greek title of the Book of Joshua as it appears in the Greek Septuagint Bible, 300 B.C the second verse Joshua 1:1 is Joshua’s Greek name. The name Joshua means Jehovah-saved. The name Jesus is not found in any language (except English in the last 200 years) and has no meaning at all.

greek_joshua2

The name of Joshua in Greek has been the same for 1700 years! Everywhere you see Jesus and Joshua the Greek translation is the same for both names. This is proof that our original bible in the Greek had the Messiah’s correct name — Joshua — and it was only changed to the Greek name Iesous AFTER the New Testament was written in Greek! (or after the translation was made, which ever is the truth)This means that for some reason the real name Joshua was substituted for another name by someone who already knew what the correct translation was. They knowingly and purposely changed the name!

The correct translation of Joshua was already known 300 years before the birth of the Messiah. They even knew the correct translation in Greek since they used it in Acts 7:45! This is a clear-cut case of biblical corruption focused on the main character of the New Testament, Christ! The transliteration of the Hebrew name Yeshua had to be an invention long after the bible was already written.

Acts 7:45
In the contemporary translations below all the translations in Acts 7:45 are “Joshua” except for the King James Version. This is very curious. This should tell you something is radically wrong and someone has been tampering with bible.

(KJV) Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drave out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;

(Darby) which also our fathers, receiving from their predecessors, brought in with Joshua when they entered into possession of the lands of the nations, whom God drove out from the face of our fathers, until the days of David;

(WNT) That Tent was bequeathed to the next generation of our forefathers. Under Joshua they brought it with them when they were taking possession of the land of the Gentile nations, whom God drove out before them. So it continued till David’s time.

(YLT) which also our fathers having in succession received, did bring in with Joshua, into the possession of the nations whom God did drive out from the presence of our fathers, till the days of David,

Conclusion:

The Greek language did, in fact, have a correct translation for Joshua as far back as 300 BC. It makes no sense that the authors or translators transliterated the name from Yeshua to Iesous when they already had a correct translation. This is NOT true! In fact this correct translation persists to this day as we can see that contemporary translations of the bible actually have the name Joshua instead of Jesus. Furthermore, the Greek name in the gospels where the name Jesus is used is the same as the Greek name for Joshua.The question remains: Since the original translation for the name of the Messiah was correct from the beginning, who replaced it with the name Iesous? And why was this done?

In the 1611 KJ New Testament the name Yahshua (Yehoshua) appeared originally wherever the Messiah was spoken of. Yehoshua means Yehovah’s (Jehovah’s) Salvation. Later the Messiah’s name was replaced with Iesus (Greek) which later in the 1600′s it became Jesus starting with the new English letter “J” which was introduced at that time. Further, the Greek “Iesus” comes from the name Zeus, the ruling God in the Greek pantheon.” – Gospel of The Kingdom True Names and Title Dr. Henry Clifford Kinley 1931 – Ohio USA

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4 thoughts on “Who Changed the Name of the Messiah?

    • That’s strange. They already had the name translated into English as Joshua. The Greek is the same word in both OT and NT. You don’t need to know Greek to be able to compare the two — they are the same.

      The fact is that there are many translations, even before the King James that had Joshua instead of Jesus. The problem was when they translated into English. The Greeks could call him what they wanted it was their language.

      But the men who translated it into English didn’t need to transliterate, they already had the correct translation. So why didn’t they use the correct Hebrew name Jeshua or even the English form Joshua? What’s more is the name Iesuos, an actual Greek name had no meaning at all. The name Yeshua or Joshua in English meant the salvation of God. How much more appropriate would it have been if the English translators had used Yeshua or the English Joshua instead of JEEZUS, the transliteration of a name from Hebrew to Greek?

      It would have been such an easy decision to make for the translators.

  1. Okay, I’m really lost now. What about, Matthew 1:23 Behold , a virgin shall be with child , and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name EMMANUEL, which being interpreted is , God with us.

    • Again? You Christians seem to only be able to come up with that one little verse for the defense of the “virgin birth”. That’s probably the weakest one. Oh well…

    • The woman in the prophecy wasn’t a virgin — it was Isaiah’s wife.
    • The word was mistranslated — it should have been translated young woman
    • The prophecy was to king Ahaz 700 years before Jesus’ birth — too early to be about Jesus
    • If it was a doubly fulfilled prophecy then where is the first virgin — the bible itself says that Isaiah got his wife pregnant and fulfilled the prophecy.
    • Isaiah’s son was not named Emmanuel and neither was the Messiah
    • Neither Paul nor any of the other disciples knew of or wrote of a virgin birth — this so-called prophecy only appears in Matthew and Matthew didn’t even write this book. He wrote a gospel but it was only in Hebrew, not Greek

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